abdominal ultrasound

A 2-year-old child is brought to the GP by their parents who are concerned about the appearance of their child's abdomen. The child is asymptomatic, feeding well, and has no history of vomiting or pain. On examination, vital signs are normal. Considering the clinical presentation and the finding shown in the image, what is the most appropriate initial management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for an elective abdominal ultrasound. Several months ago, she experienced a few episodes of intermittent, moderate-to-severe right upper quadrant pain that resolved spontaneously within a few hours each time. She denies any associated fever, chills, nausea, vomiting, or jaundice during those episodes or currently. She has no significant past medical history other than well-controlled hypertension. On examination today, she is afebrile, her vital signs are stable, and her abdomen is soft and non-tender. Routine blood tests performed prior to the ultrasound, including full blood count, liver function tests (bilirubin, alkaline phosphatase, AST, ALT, GGT), amylase, and lipase, are all within their respective normal reference ranges. The provided image is a representative view obtained during her ultrasound examination. Considering the patient's history, current clinical status, and the findings demonstrated in the image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 64-year-old woman presents for follow-up after experiencing intermittent episodes of right upper quadrant colicky pain over the past year, which have since resolved. She denies any current pain, fever, jaundice, or changes in bowel habits. Physical examination is unremarkable, and recent liver function tests are within normal limits. An elective abdominal ultrasound was performed, yielding the image shown. Considering the clinical context and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A previously healthy 3-year-old boy presents with colicky abdominal pain and non-bilious vomiting. Physical exam reveals a palpable abdominal mass in the RUQ. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the finding shown. What is the MOST likely lead point?

A 70-year-old male with cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse presents with new-onset ascites and a palpable liver mass. His AFP is markedly elevated. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next diagnostic step?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and bloody stools. An ultrasound is performed, the image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 64-year-old woman with a history of intermittent, self-resolving right upper quadrant pain presents for evaluation. She denies fever, chills, or jaundice, and her physical examination is unremarkable. Routine blood tests, including liver function tests and amylase, are within normal limits. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, and a representative image is shown. Based on the findings in this image and her clinical presentation, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed, shown above. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 58-year-old male presents with vague abdominal pain and unintentional weight loss. He has a history of working on a sheep farm. The provided imaging was obtained. Which of the following serological tests is MOST appropriate?

A 64-year-old woman presents for review in the outpatient clinic. She reports a history of intermittent, self-resolving episodes of right upper quadrant colicky pain over the past year, but is currently asymptomatic. She denies fever, jaundice, or other systemic symptoms. Her physical examination is unremarkable, and recent liver function tests are within the normal reference range. An elective abdominal ultrasound was performed, yielding the image shown. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated, what is the most appropriate next step in her management?

A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs and no abdominal distension. An ultrasound was performed, and an image is shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 5-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting. Ultrasound (shown). What electrolyte abnormality is MOST likely?

A 62-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C presents with new onset ascites and right upper quadrant pain. His AFP is markedly elevated. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 4-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of intermittent abdominal pain. His mother reports that the pain seems to come in waves, during which he cries and pulls his legs towards his chest. Between episodes, he appears relatively comfortable and plays normally. He has vomited once. His bowel movements have been normal, but his mother noticed a small streak of blood in his diaper this morning. On examination, the child is alert and playful. His abdomen is soft and non-tender to palpation. Bowel sounds are present. Given the history, the physician orders an abdominal ultrasound, the image is shown. What is the MOST likely underlying cause of this patient's condition?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain and vomiting. Stool examination reveals a positive occult blood test. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman with past colicky pain has the ultrasound shown. LFTs are normal. What is the MOST appropriate next investigation?

A 64-year-old woman presents for a routine health check. She reports intermittent episodes of colicky abdominal pain over the past year, which have since resolved. An abdominal ultrasound, as shown, was performed. Liver function tests are normal. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for a routine health check. She reports intermittent episodes of colicky abdominal pain over the past year, which have resolved spontaneously. She denies any current pain, jaundice, fever, or changes in bowel habits. Her physical examination is unremarkable, with a soft, non-tender abdomen. Liver function tests are within normal limits. An abdominal ultrasound, as shown, was performed. Given the clinical context and the ultrasound findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 59-year-old male presents with a painful right groin bulge that has progressively worsened over the past week. He denies fever, chills, nausea, or vomiting. Vitals are stable. The provided image was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. An abdominal ultrasound is performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 6-week-old male presents with persistent non-bilious vomiting after feeding. He appears hungry and has lost weight since birth. Examination reveals visible peristaltic waves across the abdomen. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the most likely acid-base disturbance seen in this patient?

A 6-month-old infant presents for a routine check-up. The mother reports the infant is feeding well and has normal bowel movements. On examination, the infant is active and alert with normal vital signs. The abdomen is soft and non-tender. The image shows a finding on abdominal examination. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 62-year-old male with cirrhosis secondary to alcohol abuse presents with new-onset ascites and a palpable liver mass. His AFP is 600 ng/mL. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in confirming the diagnosis and guiding management?

A 3-week-old male infant presents with persistent, non-bilious projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly accepts the bottle, but vomits shortly after. On examination, mild dehydration is noted. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the relevant image is attached. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, non-bilious vomiting, and decreased activity. Parents report redcurrant jelly stool. On exam, a palpable mass is noted. Vitals are stable. An ultrasound is performed (shown above). Considering the clinical picture and the image findings, which non-surgical intervention is indicated?

A 65-year-old male with known alcoholic cirrhosis undergoes surveillance. The provided contrast-enhanced ultrasound was obtained. What is the MOST appropriate next step?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale and has a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). Based on the clinical presentation and the image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 2-year-old boy presents with abdominal pain and vomiting. An ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST likely lead point for this condition?

A 58-year-old male presents with left lower quadrant abdominal pain and a low-grade fever. The provided image was obtained. What is the most likely diagnosis?

A 38-year-old male presents to the emergency department complaining of sudden onset, severe left flank pain that radiates to his groin. He reports associated nausea and vomiting. He denies any fever, dysuria, or hematuria. His vital signs are stable: blood pressure 120/80 mmHg, heart rate 88 bpm, respiratory rate 16 breaths/min, and temperature 37.0°C. A urinalysis reveals microscopic hematuria. A point-of-care ultrasound is performed, and the image is shown. Given the clinical presentation and ultrasound findings, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 58-year-old male with cirrhosis presents for routine surveillance. His AFP is 8. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 45-year-old male presents to the ED with left flank pain radiating to his groin. He reports nausea but no vomiting. Vitals are stable. A focused ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset, intermittent, severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. Examination reveals a palpable mass. Vitals stable. Ultrasound performed. Based on the clinical presentation and the provided image, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 1-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, often projectile, occurring shortly after feeds. His parents report he is constantly hungry and irritable but has had poor weight gain. On examination, he is alert but appears thin. Vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable mass. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image of which is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings depicted, what is the most appropriate initial management strategy?

A 9-month-old presents with a noticeable abdominal protrusion, more prominent when crying. The child is feeding well and has regular bowel movements. Examination reveals a soft, easily reducible bulge at the umbilicus, as shown. Parents are concerned about potential complications. What is the MOST appropriate parental advice?

A 5-week-old male infant presents with a 10-day history of non-bilious, forceful vomiting after every feed. His parents report decreased wet nappies and lethargy. On examination, he is pale, weighs 3.2 kg (birth weight 3.5 kg), has sunken eyes, and poor skin turgor. Vital signs: HR 170, RR 45, Temp 37.0, BP 80/50. Initial bloods show Na 132, K 3.1, Cl 88, HCO3 30. An imaging study is performed, shown in the image. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings demonstrated in the imaging study, what is the most appropriate immediate management priority for this infant?

A 62-year-old male with a history of hepatitis C presents with new onset ascites and right upper quadrant pain. His AFP is markedly elevated. A contrast-enhanced ultrasound is performed, as shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 6-week-old male infant presents with a 1-week history of progressively worsening non-bilious vomiting, often projectile, occurring shortly after feeds. His parents report he is constantly hungry and irritable but has had poor weight gain. On examination, he is alert but appears thin. Vital signs are stable. Abdominal examination is soft, non-tender, with no palpable mass. An abdominal ultrasound is performed, the image of which is shown. Considering the clinical presentation and the findings depicted, what is the most appropriate definitive management strategy after initial fluid and electrolyte correction?

A 4-week-old male presents with persistent projectile vomiting after each feed. He appears hungry and eagerly feeds, but vomits shortly after. An abdominal X-ray is ordered, the result of which is shown. What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A previously healthy 2-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 1-day history of colicky abdominal pain. His parents report that the pain occurs in episodes, during which he cries intensely and pulls his legs up to his chest. Between episodes, he appears relatively comfortable. He has had one episode of vomiting. His parents also noticed a small amount of blood in his stool this morning. On examination, the child is alert but irritable. His abdomen is soft, but a palpable mass is noted in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed, with a representative image shown. What is the MOST appropriate initial management strategy?

A 64-year-old woman reports intermittent RUQ pain. She denies jaundice or fever. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, image shown. Besides referral for surgery, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 68-year-old male presents to the ED with left lower quadrant abdominal pain, fever, and leukocytosis. A CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis is performed. Based on the imaging, what is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents with a history of colicky pain. An ultrasound was performed. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents to the emergency department with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, what is the most appropriate next step in the management of this patient?

A 3-year-old boy presents with a 12-hour history of intermittent, severe abdominal pain, drawing his legs up to his chest. He has vomited several times. His vital signs are stable: HR 110, BP 95/60, RR 24, Temp 37.2°C. On examination, he is irritable but comfortable between episodes of pain. His abdomen is soft but mildly distended. A focused abdominal ultrasound is performed, yielding the image provided. Based on the clinical presentation and the findings shown, what is the most appropriate initial therapeutic intervention?

A 3-year-old boy presents with sudden onset intermittent severe abdominal pain, vomiting, and lethargy. On examination, he is pale but haemodynamically stable. Abdominal examination reveals a palpable mass in the right upper quadrant. An ultrasound is performed (image provided). What is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 6-week-old male presents with projectile vomiting after feeds. He is otherwise well-appearing, with normal vital signs. An abdominal ultrasound is performed (image attached). What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?

A 64-year-old woman presents for follow-up after experiencing episodes of right upper quadrant pain several months ago, which resolved spontaneously. She denies fever, jaundice, or current abdominal discomfort. Routine blood tests including LFTs are within normal limits. An abdominal ultrasound was performed, with a representative image provided. Considering her history and the imaging findings, what is the most appropriate next step in management?

A 3-year-old boy presents with inconsolable crying and drawing up his legs. Stool sample is positive for blood. The ultrasound is shown. What is the next step?

A 3-year-old boy presents with intermittent abdominal pain, vomiting, and currant jelly stools. An ultrasound is performed, revealing the image shown. What is the MOST appropriate next step in management?